Just How Literal is the KJV?
I came across some very DISTINCT verses in my bible tonight... I'll just show two:
2 Kings 9:8 KJV:
For the whole house of Ahab shall perish: and I will cut off from Ahab him that pisseth against the wall, and him that is shut up and left in Israel:
2 Kings 9:8 NIV, NASB, et al:
For the whole house of Ahab shall perish, and I will cut off from Ahab every male, bond or free, in Israel.
interesting how the KJV defines what GOd said as "him that pisseth against the wall."
If God used a strange Metaphor like this, could it be He was very specific? Honestly, the KJV is a LOT different like others, such as the YLT:
and perished hath all the house of Ahab, and I have cut off to Ahab those sitting on the wall, and restrained, and left, in Israel,
Yep.
However, my main point is that is God used a strange metaphor, then we should keep it that way. Psalm 12:6 says the words of the LORD are pure words... so KEEP THEM THE WORDS OF GOD PLEASE! Not the "More Understandable Version."
God bless,
Michael
